I have a simple question, and would you like to provide something helpful. I think the clinical measures (e.g., DSM-IV) are developed for clinical population and would not be suitable for healthy population. For example, sometimes, with some clinical measures of this kind, we can see a significant correlation in patient, but not in healthy control. I think one possible reason may be that some clinical measures can not capture full individual differences in healthy population. But I am not quite sure. Is there any evidence for the applicability?