here is my second question. You have conducted two affective states measurement sessions through using the same SPANE questionnaire; the first session has been the initial one while the second followed the first experimental task and preceded the second experimental task.
Now, the SPANE questionnaire measures affective states inviting respondents to “think about what you have been doing and experiencing during the past four weeks”; given that the time lapse between the two affective states measurement sessions must have been short, respondents should have referred twice to the same four weeks period.
You say that the second session was held in order “to limit the threats to validity because the first task may provoke a change in the affective states of the participants”. But if they make reference to the same four previous weeks period, is it not something redundant or, possibly, misleading? Did you compare the two sets of results? Maybe you noted some interesting differences between them?
Thank you very much, best regards